An argument I frequently hear (and generally buy into) against impact investing is that fungibility of investment money leads to unethical actors taking the extra wins created by impact investing. Hence, one should optimize for capital gains in 'investment' buckets and optimize for philanthropy in the 'doing good' bucket.
I'm concerned that this argument could then be applied to the money in my philanthropic bucket.
That is, does reducing my wealth by giving shift more capital gains onto non-altruistic actors? Put another way, in the long run under market economies, does philanthropy reduce the power of altruistic actors and increase the power of non-altruistic actors? If not, why?
Ah I see, I guess this is a difference in thinking or perhaps a misunderstanding on my part! My mental model for charitable contributions is kind of:
Giving money to philanthropy is a non-compounding effect. Kind of a one and done contribution.
But, what I'm hearing you say is that charitable contributions continue to compound value (perhaps through flow-through effects?). Do you have any data/research to back up the compounding effect of charity? I'm curious to learn more.
Also, charitable organizations need continuous influx of capital to keep operating. If I give, how is this not a 'one and done' contribution given that the organization would need more capital to continue operating. I guess I'm still having difficulty understanding, where is the compounding nature of charity?