Oren Bar-Gill, an economics and law professor at Harvard, recently wrote a paper critiquing the use of willingness-to-pay (WTP) as a proxy for utility because WTP is affected by wealth (some economists refer to WTP as “willingness-and-ability-to-pay” for this reason). Specifically, all else equal, wealthy people often have a higher WTP for goods. This means that standard, microeconomic welfare estimates using WTP -- i.e. consumer surplus maximization -- implicitly add greater weight to the utility of wealthy individuals relative to poor individuals.
We’re wondering if you all (a.) think this is a problem and (b.) have come across/can think of solutions for dealing with this concern.
Extra info: We think this issue may have real-world consequences. Economists regularly use consumer surplus to make policy decisions. For example, the FTC uses consumer surplus as a chief consideration when making decisions about antitrust regulation. Additionally, well-respected economists regularly use consumer surplus maximization as an approximation of welfare for policy papers such as in this paper about price ceilings in natural gas markets.
Given that this concern seems to have real-world consequences, we find it strange that professors at our university (which has a well-regarded economics department) didn't address it. Most undergraduate microeconomic courses used surplus maximization as the core tool for welfare maximization. Yet, in our experience, no professor brought up the fact that using WTP may add greater weight to the utility of wealthy people. This made us think we were missing something, but professors seemed to agree that this was a concern when we asked in office hours.
If you also think this is a problem, we’re very interested in hearing how you think it can be (at least partially) resolved. Here are a few examples of “solutions” (more like band-aids) we thought about:
- Split up groups by income and separately analyze the WTP (and the derived consumer surplus) of each group. Then apply different weightings to each group’s consumer surplus and sum across. We took a stab at this in this spreadsheet and explain our process in this doc.
- Control for poverty when conducting a regression analysis using survey data. Feel free to link examples.
We'd love comments on these proposed solutions or other suggestions. Thanks!!
I agree that this is a problem and had previously raised the question in a post on the Forum, (though it is my lowest scoring post ever so evidently lots of people disagree with my argument!)
This issue became especially clear in early attempts by economists to put a value on the life of people across countries. Since people in poor countries took on greater risk for less money, their lives were valued at a fraction of those in rich countries.
Another example is tickets. Suppose that we are selling tickets to the final of Euro 2020 and that Warren Buffet buys all the tickets for the game because he likes to watch games in empty stadia. Economists often say that because willingness to pay tracks utility across persons and the tickets went to the highest bigger, this outcome enhances social welfare compared to a world in which the ticket prices were kept artificially low. But obviously the fact that Buffet is willing to pay so much for the tickets is more a reflection of his massive wealth and peculiar tastes and not the fact that his welfare would actually be enhanced more than everyone else.
Economists then try to solve this by having independent fairness or equity constraints. But the market outcome is bad on utilitarian grounds.