I am a generalist quantitative researcher. I am open to volunteering and paid work. I welcome suggestions for posts. You can give me feedback here (anonymously or not).
I am open to volunteering and paid work (I usually ask for 20 $/h). I welcome suggestions for posts. You can give me feedback here (anonymously or not).
I can help with career advice, prioritisation, and quantitative analyses.
Actually, this comes down to how we define the boundaries. If the difference is truly imperceptible, it remains within the same region where numerical comparisons are perfectly valid.
Do you think there is a temperature T, and duration t for which the pain of T for t + 0.1 s is infinitely (lexically) worse than pain of T for t - 0.1 s?
However, my claim is based on a discontinuous graph. Just as water undergoes a qualitative jump at 100 °C and turns into steam, I believe consciousness undergoes a phase transition at specific thresholds which creates a qualitative leap in the nature of pain.
What do you mean by "qualitative leap"? A large, but finite increase in pain intensity for a small increase in temperature or duration? If so, it would still be the case that a sufficiently long time in pain of level i would be worse than any given time in pain of level i + 1, as argued in Bentham's Bulldog's post.
I am not entirely certain, but maybe we might also consider the following hypothesis: This qualitative shift in experience morally corresponds to theĀ tradability statusĀ of the experience itself.
This is how I would think about it. I do not know if there are large increases in pain intensity for small increases in temperature or duration. However, I agree pain intensity increases superlinearly with temperature for some ranges of temperature. Note the above goes very much against prioritising higher levels of pain infinitely (lexically) more.
But at a certain critical threshold (the point of systemic collapse where the subject entirely loses its rationality) this tradability factor effectively hits zero. In such a model, while Level 3 and Level 4 pain might possess vastly different coefficients due to the hidden tradability factor, they remain theoretically comparable. However, once we reach Level 5, we encounter a state ofĀ incomparability.
Imagine 53 ĀŗC for 1 min separates the levels of pain 4 and 5, as it is roughly the case in the graph above (which assumes the temperature ranges you mentioned apply to a duration of 1 min). Would you prever averting i) 53 ĀŗC for 60.1 s (maximum pain level of 5) for 1 person with probability 10^-100 over ii) 53 ĀŗC for 59.9 s (maximum pain level of 4) for the 8 billion people on Earth with certainty? i) corresponds to 6.01*10^-99 s (= 60.1*1*10^-100) of level 4 pain in expectation, and ii) to 4.79*10^11 s (= 59.9*8*10^9*1) of level 5 pain in expectation. I understand you would prefer averting i) because you prioritise averting level 5 pain infinitely (lexically) more than averting level 4 pain. I do not understand this. People would not distinguish between 53 ĀŗC for 60.1 s (maximum pain level of 5), and 53 ĀŗC for 59.9 s (maximum pain level of 4).
Thanks for the great post, Rory. In reality, I think the intended output often increases as any of the input factors increases. However, your point remains that increasing the most limiting input factor may increase the output much more than increasing other input factors.
Level 1: Ignorable (40°C ā 43°C)
I think you meant 44 ĀŗC instead of 43 ĀŗC. Level 2 starts at 44 ĀŗC.
1-) As I stated earlier, duration is not just a multiplier; it is a catalyst for a qualitative shift. ( In the context of my Five-Phase Model, after a certain threshold, a prolonged Level 3 experience does not simply "add up" to a large Level 3 sum, it undergoes a functional priority shift, effectively transforming into a Level 4 state for example.)
It makes sense the maximum level of pain increases with duration, but I do not think this solves the core issue. There will still be very small changes in temperature or duration leading to a change in the level of pain. Consider the function f(T = "temperature of the water", t = "time with a hand under water") which outputs the highest level of pain (1 to 5). Below is an illustration from Gemini. It assumes the temperature ranges you provided apply to a duration of 1 min, and the level of pain increases with duration as you mentioned. The specific shape of the boundaries between pain level is not important. What matters is that boundaries exist. Imagine 45 ĀŗC for 3 min separates the levels of pain 2 and 3, as it is roughly the case below. Would you prever averting i) 45 ĀŗC for 3 min 0.1 s (maximum pain level of 3) for 1 person with probability 10^-100 over ii) 45 ĀŗC for 2 min 59.9 s (maximum pain level of 2) for the 8 billion people on Earth with certainty? i) corresponds to 1.80*10^-98 s (= (3*60 + 0.1)*1*10^-100) of level 3 pain in expectation, and ii) to 1.44*10^12 s (= (2*60 + 59.9)*8*10^9*1) of level 2 pain in expectation. I understand you would prefer averting i) because you prioritise averting level 3 pain infinitely (lexically) more than averting level 2 pain. I do not understand this. People would not distinguish between 45 ĀŗC for 3 min 0.1 s (maximum pain level of 3), and 45 ĀŗC for 2 min 59.9 s (maximum pain level of 2).
That makes sense. I was imagining inputs which are broader than car pieces, but narrower than just people (labour) and money (capita), like people in specific roles, or certain production equipment.